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Neurology

            NEUROLOGY
                      MCQs
           Control &Co-ordination
 
1. The muscular wasting (hypotrophy) usually develops with disease in:

A: upper motor neuron
B. lower motor neuron
C. cerebellar
D. caudate

 
2: The temperature & pin sense loss usually develops with disease in:

A.anterior horns of spinal cord
B.posterior horns of spinal cord
C.lateral horns of spinal cord
D.posterior columns  of spinal cord
 
3: A glove-&-stocking pattern of sensory disturbance usually develops with disease in:

A. peripheral nerves
B. the spinal cord
C. the brainstem
D. the thalamus
               
 
4: Babinsky response usually develops with damage in:

A. upper motor neuron
B. lower motor neuron
C. cerebellar
D. thalamus

 
5: The presence of ataxia suggests damage to any of the following EXCEPT:

A. cerebellar
B. thalamus
C. vestibular nucleus
D. vagal nerve

 
6: The ability to walk along a straight line is most often impaired with:

A. cerebellar dysfunction
B. parietal lobe damage
C. temporal lobe damage
D. ocular motor disturbances
                 
 
7: Parkinsonism includes combination of the following:

A. tremor, bradykinesia & muscles rigidity
B. paresis, anesthesia & muscles spasticity
C. chorea & muscles hypotonia
D. tremor, ataxia & muscles hypotonia
                 
 

8:  The presence of dysphagia suggests damage to cranial nerves:

A. V-VII
B. IX-X
C. VII-XI
D. III-VI

 
9: The presence of dysarthria suggests damage to cranial nerve:

A. V
B. XI
C. XII
D. VIII
                 

 10: Fibrillations (fasciculations)  may develop with disease in:

A. lateral column of the spinal cord
B. posterior horn of the spinal cord
C. anterior horn of the spinal cord
D. internal capsule
               
 
11: Bilateral affection of spinal cord at the cervical level may produce the following syndrome:

A. hemiplegia
B. paraplegia
C. tetraplegia
D. monoplegia
               
 
12: Central paresis, loss of proprioceptive sensation on one side & loss of exteroceptive sensation on the opposite form the following syndrome:

A. Lambert-Iton
B. Matskevich-Shtrumpel
C. Argile-Robertson
D. Brown-Sequard
                 
 
13: The polyneuropathic pattern of sensory loss suggests presence of the following syndrome:

A. numbness & pain in distal parts of extremities
B. numbness & analgesia in half of the body
C. pain & sensory ataxia  in half of the body
D. analgesia & sensory ataxia in proximal parts of extremities
                 

14: One of the most important functions of the autonomic nervous system is the following:

A. regulation of homeostasis
B. voluntary movements
C. coordination of movements
D. involuntary movements

 
15: Any of the following cranial nerves has the parasympathetic nucleus EXCEPT:

A. vagal
B. oculomotor
C. glossopharyngeal
D. olfactory
Answer: 4
 
16: The presence of anosmia suggests damage to the following cranial nerve:

A. II
B. I
C.III
D. V

 
17: Trigeminal nerve impairment produces the following symptoms:

A. plegia in half of the face
B. ache paroxysm in half of the face
C. disturbance of swallowing
D. ache in half of the head

 
18: Dysphagia, dyphonia, dysarthria together with tongue atrophy & depressed “gag” reflex is called like following:

A. bulbar palsy
B. Bell’s palsy
C. pseudo-bulbar palsy
D. bulbus olfactorius

19: Brown-Sequard syndrome develops with the following damage of the spinal cord:

A. complete transversal
B. anterior horns
C. half transversal
D. posterior horns
               
   
20: The presence of ptosis suggests damage to cranial nerve:

A. IV
B. V
C. III
D. VII

21: The Broca’s area is located in the lobe:

A. frontal
B. parietal
C. temporal
D. occipital
                 
 22: The presence of Laseuge sign suggests  damage to the following:

A. meninges of the brain
B. spinal roots C5-C8 or radial nerve
C. spinal roots L5-S1 or sciatic nerve
D. anterior horns at the level L5-S1

33: The autonomic nervous system includes any of the following EXCEPT:

A. hypothalamus
B. paravertebral sympathetic trunk
C. vagal nerve
D. cerebral cortex

24:  Meningeal syndrome suggests any of the following, EXCEPT:

A. neck stiffness
B. headache
C. photophobia
D. Babinsky response

25: The disturbance of purposive movement in absence of paresis & dyscoordination suggests the presence of the following:

A. dyslexia
B. dysgnosia
C. dyspraxia
D. dysphasia
                 Answers or Key
                 on above  MCQ's           
            Control & Co-Ordination
          ( NEUROLOGY )

Answers
1:b
2:b
3:a
4:a
5:d
6:a
7:a
8:b
9:c
10:c
11:c
12:d
13:a
14:a
15:d
16:b
17:a
18:a
19:c
20:c
21:a
22:c
23:d
24:d
25:c

Some Medical Terms

LEARN MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY

Everybody should know the basic functioning of Human Body and its main parts in order to express and explain their ailment to the Doctor and at the same time one should be able to understand the diagnosis expressed by the Doctor in the medical terminology. For easy recognition of the Compounded Words used in the Medical Terminology for naming the disease, Suffixes are added to Prefixes. For this hereunder giving you a few such prefixes for your ready reference and understanding.

Prefix - Meaning

1. Adeno - Glandular
2. An - Not
3. Anti - Against
4. Aorto - Aorta
5. Artho - joint
6. Bleph - Eyelid
7. Broncho - Bronchi
8. Cardio - Heart
9. Cephal - Head
10. Cerebro - Brain
11. Cervico - Cervix
12. Cholecysto - Gall Bladder
13. Coli - Bowel
14. Colpo - Vagina
15. Entero - Intestine
16. Gastro - Stomach
17. Glosso - Tongue
18. Haema - Blood
19.  Hepa - Liver
20. Hystero - Uterus
21. Laryngo - Larynx
22.  Leuco - White
23.  Metro - Uterus
24. Myelo - Spinal cord
25. Myo - Muscle
26. Nephro - Kidney
27. Neuro - Nerve
28. Odonto - Tooth
29. Orchido - Testis
30. Osteo - Bone
31. Oto - Ear
32. Pharyngo - Pharynx
33. Pio - Pus
34. Pneumo - Lung
35. Ren - Kidney
36. Rhin - Nose
37. Spleno - Spleen
38. Thyro - Thyroid Gland
39. Urethro - Urethra
40. Vesico – Bladder

Here are the suffixes used in Medical terminology. Check out!
Suffix - Meaning

1.  -aemia : Blood
2. -algia : Pain
3. -derm : skin
4. -dynia : pain
5. -ectomy : removal
6. -Itis : inflammation
7. -lithiasis : Presence of Stone
8. -malacia : softening
9. -oma : tumour
10. -opia : eye
11. -osis : Condition,excess
12. -otomy : incision of
13. -phobia : fear
14. -plasty : surgery
15. -plegia : peralysis
16. -ptosis : falling
17. -rhoea : excessive discharge
18. -rhage : to burst forth
19. -rhythmia : rhythm.
20. -stasis : stoppage of movement
21. -sthenia : weakness
22. -stomy : outlet
23. -tomy : removal
24. -trophy : nourishment
25. -uria : urine

Compounded Words - Meaning

1. Anaemia - Deficiency of haemoglobin in the blood
2. Analgesic - Medicine which alleviates pain
3. Arthralgia - Pain in a joint
4. Cephalalgia - Headache
5. Nephralgia - Pain in the kidney
6. Neuralgia - Nerve pain
7. Myalgia - Muscle pain
8. Otalgia - Ear ache
9. Gastralgia - Pain in the stomach
10. Pyoderma - Skin infection with pus formation
11. Leucoderma -Defective skin pigmentaion
12. Hysterodynia - Pain in the uterus
13. Hysterectomy - Excision of the uterus
14. Nephrectomy - Excision of a kidney
15. Adenectomy - Excision of a gland
16. Cholecystectomy - Excision of gall bladder
17. Thyroidectomy - Excision of thyroid gland
18. Arthritis - Inflammation of a joint
19. Bronchitis - Inflammation of the bronchi
20. Carditis - Inflammation of the heart
21. Cervicitis - Inflammation of the cervix
22. Colitis - Inflammation of the colon
23. Colpitis - Inflammation of the vagina
24. Cystitis - Inflammation of the urinary bladder
25. Enteritis - Inflammation of the intestines
26. Gastritis - Inflammation of the stomach
27. Glossitis - Inflammation of the tongue
28. Hepatitis - Inflammation of the liver
29. Laryngitis - Inflammation of the larynx
30. Metritis - Inflammation of the uterus
31. Myelitis - Inflammation of the spinal cord
32. Nephritis - Inflammation of the kidney
33. Pharyngitis - Inflammation of the pharynx
34. Blepharitis -Inflammation of the eyelids
35. Cholelithiasis - Stone in the gall bladder
36. Nephrolithiasis - Stone in the kidney
37. Osteomalacia - Softening of bones through deficiency of calcium or D vitamin
38. Adenoma -Benign tumour of glandular tissue
39. Myoma - Tumour of muscle
40. Diplopia - Double vision
41. Thrombosis - Formation of a blood clot
42. Pyloromyotomy - Incision of pyloric sphincter muscle
43. Hedrophobia - Fear of water(Rabies in humans)
44. Neuroplasty- Surgical repair of nerves
45. Pyloraplasty -Incision of plastic pylorus to widen passage
46. Hemiplegia - Paralysis of one side of the body
47. Nephroptosis - Downward displacement of the kidney
48. Amenorrhoea - Absence of menstrual discharge
49. Dysmenorrhoea - Painful menstruation
50. Leucorrhoea - Whitish vaginal discharge
51. Menorrhoea - Menstrual bleeding
52. Haemorrhage- Escape of blood from a vessel
53. Arrhythmia -Any deviation of normal rhythm of heart
54. Cholestasis - Diminution in the flow of bile
55. Haemostatis - Arrest of bleeding
56. Neurasthenia - Nervous debility
57. Cystostomy - Surgical opening made into the bladder
58. Cystotomy - Incision into the urinary bladder
59. Hypertrophy - Increase in the size of tissues
60. Haematuria - Blood in the urine
61. Glycosuria - Presence of sugar in the urine
62. Albuminuria - Presence of albumin in the urine

Solutions IMMUNOLOGY

IMMUNOLOGY Solutions
   25.TIME minutes
1: c
2:d
3:c
4:e
5:c
6:d
7:a
8:d
9:b
10:b
11:c
12:d
13:a
14:d
15:d
16:d
17:b
18:a
19:d
20:d
21:d
22:d
23:b
24:d
25:d

IMMUNOLOGY questions set

Biology    Paper--ll  Zoology ,Gen.Bio.
&Environment. Unit --Biology &Human Welfare.
Chapter--Human Health  & Diseases        (IMMUNOLOGY )

                 MCQs
     ( 1 Mark Each)

1. The most scientific method to identify which triggers may be causing my nasal allergies is to:

A. Track the time of year when my symptoms occur
B. Have an allergist perform a skin test
C. Have an allergist run a blood test
D. There is no good way to know what I'm allergic to

2. Which is the most effective treatment for nasal allergies?

A. Over-the-counter antihistamines
B. Prescription antihistamines
C. Antihistamine decongestant combination pills
D. Nasal corticosteroid sprays
E. Oral leukotriene receptor antagonists

3. Which one of the following is least likely to trigger asthma?

A. Strenuous exercise
B. A common cold
C. Reading the newspaper
D. Cat dander
E. Tobacco smoke

4. Which of the following factors can pre-dispose you to having allergies?

A. A family history of allergies
B. Environmental Conditions
C. Number and type of Exposures
D. Emotional factors
E. All of the above

5. Hypersensitivity of which system of your body creates an allergic response?

A. Skin
B. Immune System
C. Circulatory System
D. Pulmonary System
E. Digestive System

6. Which of the following treatments can be used to reduce allergic reactions to unavoidable substances?

A. Milk thistle three times daily
B. Mist inhalation therapy
C. Regularly wearing a face mask
D. Desensitization (Allergy shots)
E. Regularly wearing a garlic necklace

7. Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed treatment for hives?

A. Oral antihistamines
B. Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone
C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D. Aspirin
E. Immunotherapy

8. Which of the following does NOT reduce or delay allergies in children?

A. Reducing dust-collecting items
B. Limiting exposure early in life to indoor furry pets
C. Avoiding smoking in and around the house
D. Exclusively wearing cotton clothes
E. All actions adequately reduce allergies

9. Which of these body systems causes allergic reactions?

A. Lymph
B. Immune
C. Nervous
D. Autonomic
E. Circulatory

10. An allergen is anything that triggers an allergic or hypersensitive response.Which of these could be an allergen?

A. Dust
B. Food
C. Nickel jewelry
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

11. What does the body release to combat allergens?

A. Plasma
B. Epinephrine
C. Histamine
D. Red Blood cells
E. Cortisone

12. The most severe form of allergic reaction is called anaphylaxis. What happens?

A. Blood pressure drops
B. Breathing becomes difficult
C. Runny nose develops
D. A and B
E. B and C

13. Which of these symptoms may indicate a food allergy?

A. Skin rash
B. Runny nose
C. Diarrhea
D. Nausea
E. Wheezing

14. Which of these foods are most likely to trigger an allergy?

A. Shellfish
B. Wheat
C. Celery
D. A and B
E. B and C

15. More Americans are developing a sensitivity to the plant proteins in latex materials or the chemical additives used in manufacturing the materials. Who's most at risk of developing a latex allergy?

A. Patients who undergo numerous medical procedures
B. Health care workers
C. Children
D. A and B
E. B and C

16. Pediatricians who treat children with egg allergies are cautious about using certain vaccines because they may be grown in an egg medium. Which of these vaccines warrant caution?

A. MMR
B. Flu
C. Polio
D. A and B
E. B and C

17. Dust mites trigger indoor respiratory allergies. Where are you most likely to find them in the home?

A. Carpet
B. Beds
C. Drapes
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

18. How long ago was asthma identified as an ailment?

A. 1,000 years ago
B. 500 years ago
C. 100 years ago
D. 50 years ago
E. 100,000 years ago

19. What are the symptoms of asthma?

A. Tightness in the chest
B. Wheezing
C. Sneezing
D. A and B
E. B and C

20. Which of these can trigger an asthma attack?

A. Exercise
B. Aspirin
C. Laughing
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

21. Which of these allergens are most likely to induce asthma?

A. Ragweed
B. Cockroaches
C. Feathers
D. B and C
E. A and B

22. Which of these foods should children with asthma avoid?

A. Dairy products
B. All nuts
C. Foods with preservatives
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

23. Which of these, if eaten on a weekly basis, can help reduce chronic coughing and wheezing in asthmatic children?

A. Broccoli
B. Oranges
C. Apples
D. Fish
E. Peanut

24. Which sports are best for asthmatics?

A. Baseball
B. Swimming
C. Sprinting
D. All of the above
E. Sport is dangerous for asthmatics

25. What can you do to reduce exposure to outdoor asthma triggers?

A. Exercise outdoors on high ozone days
B. Schedule camping trips in May, June or August through October
C. Pursue outdoor sports in cold weather
D. None of the above
E. All of the above